A 40-year-old female patient was diagnosed with iron deficiency anemia. Which of the following is the most probable cause for this type of anemia?
A. Lack of vitamin B12 resulting in misuse of iron in the body
B. A genetic disorder resulting in the inability to absorb urea from the gut
C. Traumatic hemorrhage
D. An excessive breakdown of red blood cells
E. Heavy menstrual bleeding

The most probable cause of iron deficiency anemia in a 40-year-old female patient is likely heavy menstrual bleeding. Other potential causes are less relevant in this case. Understanding the conditions affecting iron levels is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment. ;

Answered by GinnyAnswer | 2025-07-08

The most probable cause of iron deficiency anemia in a 40-year-old female patient is heavy menstrual bleeding. This condition can lead to significant iron loss and is particularly relevant for premenopausal women. Other listed causes are less likely in this specific scenario.
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Answered by Anonymous | 2025-07-11